Penetration Testing mailing list archives
Re: Cryptographic Functions
From: Jeffrey Walton <noloader () gmail com>
Date: Tue, 18 Aug 2009 14:02:04 -0400
Hi Munyaradzi,
When a passphrase is used a key in symetric cryptography, how does the pass phrase map to the key in an algorithm like AES
The passphrase should be derived using a KDF. KDFs includes salts and iteration counts. Quite a few bodies offer guidance on KDFs - NIST, RFC, IETF, and ANSI to name a few.
how many letters correspond to 1 bit?
Don't know what you are asking here. The KDF should provide sufficent 'mixing' such that no information can be gained from 1 bit of output (either 1 or 0 is equally probable). Otherwise, its not a very good KDF. Jeff On 8/18/09, M.D.Mufambisi <mufambisi () gmail com> wrote:
Hello people. 1. When a passphrase is used a key in symetric cryptography, how does the pass phrase map to the key in an algorithm like AES? ie....how many letters correspond to 1 bit? etc? Regards Munyaradzi Mufambisi
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Current thread:
- Cryptographic Functions M.D.Mufambisi (Aug 18)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions M.B.Jr. (Aug 18)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions Jeffrey Walton (Aug 18)
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- Re: Cryptographic Functions M.D.Mufambisi (Aug 19)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions Jeffrey Walton (Aug 19)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions M.D.Mufambisi (Aug 19)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions Steve Friedl (Aug 19)
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- Re: Cryptographic Functions David Howe (Aug 19)
- Re: Cryptographic Functions Jan Schejbal (Aug 21)